It is time to say a word or two about 1 John 5:7. The research and ink that have been expended on this verse are practically endless. This post will only scratch the surface, only enough to refute Riplinger’s arguments. Firstly, it is necessary to state that the doctrine of the Trinity is still quite clearly present in the rest of Scripture even without the TR reading of this verse, contra Riplinger (especially pages 417ff, which fail to mention the many other passages that prove that God is triune). The baptism of Jesus, the benediction in 2 Corinthians 13, the Great Commission in Matthew 28, the many passages that witness to the deity of all three persons, and the equally clear passages that affirm the existence of only one God all combine to form a completely adequate Scriptural basis for the doctrine of the Trinity, yes, one that can quite adequately stand up to challenges from Jews, Muslims, and JW’s.
It is important to mention this, because a highly laudable desire to read the Scriptures as proving the existence of the Trinity (with which I am in hearty agreement with Riplinger) can become blinkers as to what the actual texts of Scripture say. Riplinger acknowledges the paucity of evidence for the TR inclusion of the Comma Johanneum. However, she then states that the true reading can come from even a single manuscript (pp. 417ff). True, but is it likely? According to Metzger’s textual commentary, a mere eight Greek manuscripts have the text, and half of them have it in the margin, almost as if it were a commentary on “the spirit, the water, and the blood.” Metzger thinks it is possible that the commentary got mistaken for a correction of the manuscript, and so got included in daughter manuscripts.
The grammatical argument Riplinger uses (which is present in E.F. Hills’s defense of the passage in The King James Version Defended, pp. 276-7) is that the masculine noun “witnesses” in verse 7 cannot refer to the three neuter nouns “Spirit, water, and blood.” But if the word refers proleptically to the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit of the Comma, then the grammatical problem is eliminated. However, this argument doesn’t work. The masculine “the three” at the end of verse 8 still refer to “the Spirit, the water and the blood,” even on the TR reading. “The three” in the TR cannot refer back to the Father, the Word, and the Holy Spirit, since the phrase “these three are one” is present at the end of verse 7 already. Therefore, the same phrase at the end of verse 8, which has a masculine “these three” refers to three neuter nouns. If this is possible in verse 8, then there is no reason why the masculine “witnesses” in verse 7 could not also refer to the three neuter nouns of verse 8.
Riplinger does not offer any reasons for why the vast majority of the external evidence favors the minus. Hill does, but in order for his arguments to be correct, he has to assume that the early Christians were quite impotent theologians, as if the Comma Johanneum actually tempted people to Sabellianism! Could early Christians be so stupid as not to recognize that there is more than one way that three could be one? I doubt this. Hill also argues that it could have been an accidental omission from homoeteleuton. But this also works in reverse. If a scribe saw the comment in the margin, he might very well have committed a dittography.
At any rate, it is a very poor argument to say that we will lose a good apologetic point against JW’s, Muslims, Jews, and other anti-Trinitarians. It is not a good apologetic point if it was not original! Riplinger actually implies that there is no doctrine of the Trinity from Scripture without this verse (419). Sure, JW’s can claim this, but that doesn’t make their claim true. She then claims Jimmy Swaggart as a Christian (he is most certainly not!). While she labels him an apostate Christian in the table on p. 419, she uses him as an example of Christianity in the immediately preceding paragraph. Why is a modern apostate made to speak for Christians? Why is someone who is a social trinitarian heretic allowed to speak for orthodoxy? Does she seriously think someone like, say, Robert Letham, author of a very orthodox tome on the Trinity, would agree with Swaggart on this point? Letham meticulously argues for the doctrine of the Trinity from Scripture in his book without once quoting or using 1 John 5:7 in any way. She then slanders Westcott and Hort, as she does countless times in the volume. For proof that it is indeed slander, see these videos.
In order to argue for its inclusion, it is necessary to believe that the Latins get to correct the Greek. This will then have to depend on arguing on the basis of not-currently-existing manuscripts. This theory of providence is incredibly convoluted. The alternative is simple: if the words were not original, they entered the manuscripts through a marginal commentary (for which we do have some evidence). Some scribe thought the commentary was a marginal correction.
It is also to be noted her rash rhetoric against the modern versions at this point: “They steal words from verses 6 or 8 to create a false verse 7.” Why the imputation of sinister motives here? This is completely unnecessary.