I have wondered about the timing of the writing of the Apocryphal books for a while now. They were written before the New Testament church came into existence. The New Testament church were not the people of God at the time the Apocryphal books were being written. The people of God at the time of the writing of the Apocryphal books were the Jews. Does that not mean that the New Testament church cannot be God’s instrument by which the canonical status of the Apocryphal books is decided? Does that not mean that the Jews must be God’s instrument by which their status is decided? The Jews have always rejected those books. So also did many of the church fathers, most notably Jerome, the translator of the Vulgate! Many of them agreed with the Jews that the Apocryphal books were not canonical. We get off on the wrong foot from the beginning, however, if we say that the church has the authority to decide on the Apocryphal books. The New Testament church cannot decide on the canonicity of books written before the New Testament church even existed. The people of God in existence at the time of the writing of a book receives or rejects the canonical status of a book.